Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 08:38
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Can you explain the difference between God and atma according to the Bhagavad-Gita?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If freedom of speech is absolute, how come it's not applied for private spaces and for the Internet?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.